Weekly Quiz Answers 

Project Management Professional (PMP)®

Which of the following is not considered during project/phase closure? 

A. Team celebration ideas 

B. Critical Success Factors 

C. Fast-tracking 

D. Knowledge transfer 

(Answer: C)

Reason :

Fast-tracking is performed to accelerate the project schedule by executing two activities at the same time. It occurs before project/phase closure. 

Critical success factors; knowledge transfer; and brainstorming team celebration ideas are completed during project/phase closure. 

Weekly_Quiz

Q2. Which of the following is not part of the Validate Release in Transition phase? 

A. Production deployment testing. 

B. Active stakeholder participation. 

C. Stakeholder satisfaction survey. 

D. Log the deployment. 

(Answer: D )

Reason :

Logging the deployment falls under the release into production during the transition. 

Production deployment testing, active stakeholder participation, and stakeholder satisfaction survey are part of validating a release in transition. 

PMP Exam Simulator

Q3. A project manager needs to close a project phase. What step should project manager take? 

A. Ensure deliverables have full buy-in according to decision process established for phase. 

B. Compare project deliverables with project charter and request customer sign off. 

C. Review high-level strategic and operational assumptions and constraints with stakeholders. 

D. Review project management plan to ensure phase objectives have been met. 

(Answer: D)

Reason :

Correct answer: When closing a project or a phase project manager must review project management plan to ensure all project or phase work is completed and project or phase has met objectives. 

The remaining options are not correct for the reasons explained below 

  1. Ensure- A component of the PM plan, but not all encompassing 
  1. Compare- A component of the PM plan, but not all encompassing 
  1. Review high-level- Not reviewed at a phase closure, would address in charter development 

Past Week Quiz Answers

17 jan 2024 week quiz answer

Q1: A project deliverable does not meet the functional requirements necessary to meet stakeholder needs. As a result, the customer refuses to accept the deliverable. 

How would defining the quality metrics have helped the project manager avoid this situation? 

A. The test management plan would have evaluated the deliverable according to quality metrics before final acceptance.

B. Quality metrics specified in the work breakdown structure (WBS) would have identified compliance specifications.

C. Quality metrics would have described the attributes of the deliverable and how to measure them. 

D. Quality metrics in the requirements plan would have allowed for a new procurement process in case of component failure.

(Answer: C)

Reason :

Quality metrics are a description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it, hence it would be able to identify whether the customer would be satisfied with the deliverable as the metrics are clear and objective.

The Test Management plan take reference to the Quality Metrics, hence it is not the correct options.

The quality metrics in the WBS would only show what tasks will be performed to met specifications, but those specifications may not be measured yet.

Lastly, the option on allowing for a new procurement process will not help, as the question was about how would defining Quality Metrics would have helped out.

Q2. Which of the following is performed in project/phase closure? 

A. Schedule and conduct a project kickoff meeting.

B. Schedule and conduct a lessons learned meeting. 

C. Schedule and conduct a change control meeting.

D. Schedule and conduct a project status meeting.

(Answer: B )

Reason :

The correct answer is to schedule and conduct a lessons learned meeting during project/phase closure. Documenting lessons learned during the project life cycle provides future project teams with information that can increase effectiveness and efficiency.

Project kickoff meetings, change control meetings, and project status meetings are all conducted during the project life cycle.

Q3. A project was cancelled during its initiation phase due to lack of adequate resources. What should the project manager do? 

A. Inform all team members according to guidelines in the communications management plan.

B. Refer to the company’s project closure guidelines. 

C. Perform a risk analysis to determine the impact of terminating the project.

D. Reassign all resources and reallocate budget.

(Answer: B)

Reason :

Project closure guidelines or requirements will contain the organization’s procedures to follow.

The remaining options are not correct for the reasons explained below

  1. Inform- They have not been assigned during the initiation phase
  2. Perform- This would have been done prior to cancelling the project
  3. Reassign- Resources have not been assigned, budget has not been allocated
10 jan 2024 week quiz answer

Q1. A manufacturing company receives customer complaints that a product is defective. A project sponsor has said that these complaints might be outliers. 

What should the project manager use to investigate the cause and quantity of defects in this product? 

A. Flowcharts

B. Affinity diagram

C. Control chart

D. Histogram 

(Answer: D)

Reason :

Histogram is correct because it can show the number of defects per deliverable, a ranking of the cause of defects, the number of times each process is noncompliant, or other representations of project or product defects.

Flowchart is not correct because it show a series of steps that lead to a defect.

Affinity diagram is not correct because it can organize potential causes of defects into groups showing areas that should be focused on the most.

Control chart is not correct because it is used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

 

Q2. After sponsor approval of a project, the project manager invites the sponsor, selected team members, and other stakeholders to a meeting. The major purpose of the meeting is to define how formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained. 

What document will be developed as the final output of this meeting? 

A. Change log.

B. Stakeholder register.

C. Scope management plan. 

D. Requirements management plan.

    (Answer: C )

    Reason :

    The scope management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

    Change log is used to document changes that occur during a project.

    Stakeholder register contains information about identified stakeholders that includes identification information, assessment information and stakeholder classification.

    Requirements management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how project and product requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

     

    Q3. The client agreed to the standards that would be used to assess final deliverables prior to hand-off, but is now asking for improvements because the deliverables do not meet the standards. Which document should the project manager consult to resolve this issue? 

    A. Scope management plan

    B. Quality management plan 

    C. Requirements documentation

    D. Project charter

    (Answer: B)

    Reason :

    The quality management plan defines the standards for the project deliverables and how compliance with the standards can be demonstrated. The project charter will not have this level of detail. Likewise, the scope and requirements should not change or list specific responses to the quality acceptance criteria of the project deliverables. 

    3 jan 2024 week quiz answer

    Q1. A project manager reviews work performance data in preparation for the close project process. The data reveals that one of the deliverables was not accepted. The estimated work required to complete acceptance of the deliverable will delay the project completion date by two months. 

    What should the project manager do next? 

    A. Allocate the contingency reserve to procure resources needed for completion. 

    B. Update the schedule and perform the work. 

    C. Issue a change request for review by the change control board (CCB). 

    D. Update the watch list in the risk register.

    (Answer: C)

    Reason :

    Since one of the completed deliverables was not formally accepted, it may require a change request for defect repair. The change requests are processed for review and disposition through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. During the “Close Project Process” the Project Manager has to go to the Change Control Board (CCB) to follow the Project Management Norms.

    The other answer choices are incorrect because they are activities to be performed after the “approval” is obtained from the CCB.

     

    Q2. A major project deliverable is completed. What should the project manager and team do to confirm that specifications have been met? 

    A. Check the organizational process assets. 

    B. Validate the quality audit reports. 

    C. Verify the scope.

    D. Perform quality control. 

      (Answer: D )

      Reason :

      Quality control is used to analyze and evaluate the project deliverables against the requirements. 

      The other answer choices are incorrect. Quality audits are typically used to address problems or improvements, not to validate deliverable specifications. Organizational process assets are specific to the organization and not to the project, or project deliverables. Verifying the scope is not helpful, as the deliverable has already been completed.

       

      Q3. A customer is concerned that the current project deliverable will not fulfill stated project requirements. What could be done to alleviate customer concerns? 

      A. Schedule a meeting to remind the customer of requirements previously communicated to the team. 

      B. Document the customer’s concern as a risk in the risk register and plan accordingly. 

      C. Manage the concern at the review of each deliverable with the customer. 

      D. Ask a product owner to review the acceptance criteria previously discussed with the customer. 

      (Answer: D)

      Reason :

      To align the customer expectations with the upcoming deliveries the product owner should work with the customer to describe functional behavior as acceptance criteria (definition of Done).

      27 dec 2023 week quiz answer

      Q1. A project has been closed and customer care needs to measure customer satisfaction with the deliverables.

      What should be done next?

      A. Negotiate additional contract with customer for similar service.

      B. Schedule meeting with stakeholders and customer to discuss lessons learned.

      C. Evaluate project deliverables and review customer feedback documents.

      D. Audit project success by reviewing closing documentation for each project phase.

      (Answer: C)

      Reason :

      Evaluate- Closure meetings are used to confirm deliverables have been accepted, validate if acceptance criteria have been met, formalize contract completion, evaluate stakeholders satisfaction, gather lessons learned, transfer project knowledge and information, and celebrate success. Customer satisfaction can be derived by referring customer feedback documents.

      Negotiate- Not initiated by the customer. No need to negotiate additional contract with customer

      Schedule- Previously performed at project closure. As part of Project closure meeting, lessons learned can be covered

      Audit- No relevance to the question, part of gate review process.

       

      Q2. A project team has not been performing user acceptance tests on a deliverable because the product has been working as expected in other projects. However, after implementation, the product is not operational.

      What should the project manager do to identify the source of the problem?

      A. Review the quality metrics document.

      B. Develop a scatter diagram.

      C. Conduct a root cause analysis.

      D. Perform an audit.

      (Answer: C )

      Reason :

      Root cause analysis is an analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance, defect, or risk. So conduct root cause analysis is the right choice

      Quality metrics document is a description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it, and is not used to identify the source of the quality problem.

      A scatter diagram is a graph that shows the relationship between two variables and is used for decision making, not identifying the source of the quality problem.

      An audit is the process of determining if the project activities comply with the specific procedure, which doesn’t help to identify the quality problem in this case.

       

      Q3. A project manager is working with stakeholders to identify the steps that must be completed as part of a task. The project manager needs to be able to verify that team members have completed all the steps required when performing a frequently performed task.

      What should the project manager use?

      A. Flowchart

      B. Checklist

      C. Histogram

      D. Facilitation

      (Answer: B)

      Reason :

      The project manager should use a checklist as it is generally used in validating process steps have been implemented.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. Flowcharts can only be used to outline process steps not verify that they have been conducted; histograms reflect frequency distribution and will not verify team members have completed the tasks; and facilitation is the ability to effectively guide a group event to a successful decision, solution, or conclusion.

      20 dec 2023 week quiz answer

      Q1. Which of the following represents levels of risk attitude?

      A. Conservative, moderate, and liberal

      B. Risk-averse, risk-neutral, risk-tolerant, risk-seeking

      C. Risk-mitigating, risk-avoiding, risk-transferring, risk-accepting

      D. High, medium, and low

      E. Positive, negative, and indifferent

      (Answer: B)

      Reason :

      Risk attitude is a disposition toward uncertainty, adopted explicitly or implicitly by individuals and groups, driven by perception, and evidenced by observable behavior. The correct answer is therefore the one that cites the averse, neutral, tolerant, and seeking attitudes towards risk as a characteristic of the stakeholders. The stakeholder register contains details of the project’s stakeholders and provides an overview of their project roles and their attitude toward risk on the project.

      Risk attitude information is useful in determining roles and responsibilities for managing risk on the project, as well as setting risk thresholds for the project. Conservative, moderate, and liberal are not risk attitudes. Risk-mitigating, risk-avoiding, risk-transferring, and risk-accepting are risk response strategies. High, medium, and low are gradients that can be used for qualitative risk assessment. Positive, negative, and indifferent are not risk attitudes.

       

      Q2. A supplier of a critical component for a construction project notifies the project manager that the component will be significantly late. Because this risk had been identified during project planning, the cost baseline contains an adequate contingency reserve.

      What should the project manager do next?

      A. Identify a supplier that can provide the component within the amount of the reserve.

      B. Order the component from another supplier and submit a change request to the change control board (CCB).

      C. Review the risk response plan and the statement of work for the next steps and a penalty clause for late delivery.

      D. Update the project schedule and the lessons learned repository.

      (Answer: A )

      Reason :

      Realizing that project delivery is the prime focus, the project manager needs to assess alternatives without concern for the potential budget impact. Once a viable alternative is identified, they can present their case to the sponsor for a decision. So, identifying a supplier that can provide the component within the amount of reserve is the right choice.

      Ordering the component from another supplier without considering the reserve is not the right choice. Updating the project schedule and reviewing the statement of work for late delivery won’t solve the current situation. That is equal to accepting the project delay.

       

      Q3. A project manager completed plans for a project and submitted all documents for approval but did not allocate time for delays in obtaining approvals. In addition to selecting a risk owner to address this potential risk, what should the project manager have done?

      A. Asked the risk owner to escalate with approvers so that approvals are obtained as soon as possible.

      B. Adjusted the project plans by lowering work completion estimates so that the work can be completed on time despite the delay.

      C. Developed specific actions to implement the agreed-upon risk response strategy, including primary and backup strategies.

      D. Used a real options analysis to perform an economic analysis of alternative risk response strategies.

      (Answer: C)

      In situations where there are only a few possible outcomes from an area of uncertainty, the project team can prepare for each of those outcomes. This entails having a primary solution available, as well as having backup or contingency plans in case the initial solution is not viable or effective. Where there is a large set of potential outcomes, the project team can categorize and assess the potential causes to estimate their likelihood of occurrence. This allows the project team to identify the most likely potential outcomes on which to focus.

      The other options are incorrect because they are reactionary and the question asks what would have been done in addition to selecting a risk owner to address this potential risk.

      13 Dec 2023 Week Quiz Answer

      Q1. Project manager is conducting risk identification based on high-level scope and expert judgement.

      What information in the project charter could support risk identification?

      What information in the project charter could support risk identification?

      A. Summary of project roles and responsibilities

      B. Detailed requirements and scope

      C. Project communication matrices

      D. Stakeholder interest

      (Answer: D)

      Reason :

      The Project Charter summarizes high-level information about project and product. It includes a general risks list developed using expert judgement technique. Individuals experienced in similar projects or area, familiar with source of risks, or either individuals familiar on how the organization approaches risks, can contribute to risk identification process.

      Summary of project roles and responsibilities does not address question, and would not be in the charter.
      Detailed requirements and scope would not be in the charter. The charter would be at a higher level and not detailed.
      Project communication matrices does not address question, and would not be in the charter.

      Q2. What tools or techniques are suitable for monitoring risks? (Choose 2)

      A. Data analysis

      B. Affinity grouping

      C. Risk Transference

      D. Risk audits

      (Answer: A & D)

      Reason :

      Monitoring risks provides the assurance that risk responses are being applied, verifies whether they are effective, and, as necessary, initiates corrective actions. Periodic audits should be performed to determine strengths and weaknesses in handling risks within the project. Data should be analyzed and documented throughout the risk management process. Audit measurements and data analysis provide a reliable understanding of the status of risks.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. Affinity grouping involves classifying items into similar categories or collections on the basis of their likeness. Common affinity groupings include T-shirt sizing and Fibonacci numbers. Risk transference is a risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.

       

      Q3. A project manager has been made aware of a recent weather event that could potentially impact the project. Forecasters are unable to predict the path or strength of the event. Any delays would extend the project’s finish date and cause cost overruns.
      What should the project manager do first?

      A. Notify the stakeholders and revise the budget.

      B. Take preventive action based on new information.

      C. Check the risk register for more risk information.

      D. Record information about the event in the issue log.

      (Answer: C)

      Reason :

      Before doing anything, the project manager should review the risk register. A risk register is a repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded. It is important to check whether or not the risk had been identified during the planning process, or if it is an emergent risk. If the risk was previously identified, the risk register would have the information needed to address the risk. Information in a risk register can include the person responsible for managing the risk, probability, impact, risk score, planned risk responses, and other information used to get a high-level understanding of individual risks. From there, the project manager can address the risk appropriately.
      The other answers are incorrect because the risk register should be reviewed before making any revisions or taking preventative actions. An issue log is used to record and monitor information on active issues, and the event has not occurred yet, and may not occur.

      06 Dec 2023 Week Quiz Answer

      Q1. A project manager learns that in-house resources are insufficient to produce a critical component of a deliverable. This poses a significant threat. The quality of the component is integral to the project, and the in-house resources cannot guarantee high-quality output. In response to this threat, the project manager decides to outsource the production of the component by contracting a third-party vendor.
      Which threat response strategy did the project manager use?

      A. Accept

      B. Mitigate

      C. Enhance

      D. Escalate

      (Answer: B)

      Reason :

      A threat is an event or condition that, if it occurs, has a negative impact on one or more objectives. In threat mitigation, action is taken to reduce the probability of occurrence and/ or impact of a threat. Early mitigation action is often more effective than trying to repair the damage after the threat has occurred. The project manager acted to reduce the probability of the threat associated with the development of a project-critical component.

      The other answers are incorrect because they do not align with this situation.

      Threat acceptance acknowledges the existence of a threat, but no proactive action is planned.

      Enhancement refers to opportunities, not threats. In opportunity enhancement, the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

      Escalation is appropriate when the project team or the project sponsor agrees that a threat is outside the scope of the project or that the proposed response would exceed the project manager’s authority.

      Q2. A technology project for a multinational bank is in the testing stage. The project manager learns that a security breach has exposed the personal data of thousands of end users. The project sponsor suspends work while the cause is investigated. The threat of a security breach was identified during the risk management planning process, and the impact is significant.
      What should the project manager do?

      A. Refer to the stakeholder engagement plan to determine the risk owner.

      B. Perform a decision tree analysis to calculate the optimal path to resolution.

      C. Meet with the project sponsor to negotiate a new requirements management plan.

      D. Update the issue log and review the risk response strategy outlined in the risk register.

      (Answer: D)

      Reason :

      The correct answer is to update the issue log and review the risk response strategy outlined in the risk register.

      Before taking action, the issue must be documented in the issue log and the risk register must be reviewed to determine how to respond to this issue. When threats occur, they are called issues and are listed in the issue log. An issue log is used to record and monitor information on active issues. Since the threat of a data breach has occurred, it must be documented in the issue log. The project manager must also review the risk register. A risk register is a repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded. Information in a risk register can include the person responsible for managing the risk, probability, impact, risk score, planned risk responses, and other information used to get a high-level understanding of individual risks. The risk of the breach was identified, therefore the risk register should contain information on the agreed-upon risk response strategy and other related information.

      Referring to the stakeholder engagement plan to determine the risk owner is incorrect because the risk owner is documented in the risk register. A stakeholder engagement plan is a component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote the productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision-making and execution.

      Performing a decision tree analysis is incorrect because it is a risk analysis tool that should have been conducted when the team was analyzing risks. A decision tree analysis is a diagramming and calculation method for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty. The output of this analysis would be recorded in the risk register.

      Meeting with the project sponsor to negotiate a contingency plan is incorrect because the contingency plan must have been available in the risk register.

       

      Q3. During the development phase of a construction project, key stakeholders approved a project budget. The team identified risks and appropriate risk responses. However, during project execution, an unexpected local health emergency halted and delayed work on the project. This event type was not identified as a risk or listed in the risk register. The team decides that this issue must be mitigated, which would incur additional costs.
      How should the project manager address this unforeseen budgetary overrun?

      A. Use the management reserve to cover the cost.

      B. Identify potential ways to exploit the risk.

      C. Use the contingency reserve to cover the cost.

      D. Develop cost and performance baselines.

      (Answer: A)

      Reason :

      The correct answer is to use the management reserve to cover the cost.

      Since the health emergency was unforeseen, the management reserve would be the appropriate resource to cover the cost or mitigation. A management reserve is the amount of the project budget or project schedule held outside of the performance measurement baseline for management control purposes that is reserved for unforeseen work that is within the project scope.

      Risk exploitation addressed opportunities, not threats. Risk exploitation is a response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs. Further, the question states that the issue must be mitigated, so the risk response has already been determined.

      A contingency reserve is the time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies. This option is incorrect because the risk was not known.

      The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

      29 Nov 2023 Week Quiz Answer

      Q1. During project execution, the project manager realizes that a team member is not completing tasks in accordance with the project management plan. What is the first action the project manager should take?

      A. Build a matrix team to review the relationships on all project teams.

      B. Ask all the team members to focus more on the project.

      C. Reassign the uncompleted tasks to another team member.

      D. Engage the team members to determine the reasons for poor performance.

      (Answer: D)

      Reason : A project manager must identify changes in the behavior of each team member and help them to achieve the goals of the project.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. There is no indication that the team is matrixed or non-matrixed. This has no bearing on an individual’s performance. Asking other team members to focus on the ask or adding team members may not be the most efficient means to accomplish the task.

      Q2. A project manager learned that the project deliverables will not meet the quality requirements unless a change is made to a component. After issuing a formal change request, the project manager emailed details of the change to all stakeholders. Most stakeholders received the information promptly and were fully aware of the change. However, the project manager found out that some stakeholders did not receive the email or did not read it.
      What could the project manager have done to prevent this?

      A. Reviewed the communications management plan.

      B. Developed a detailed work performance report.

      C. Met with the project sponsor to discuss communication.

      D. Questioned the stakeholders about technological literacy.

      (Answer: A)

      Reason : The correct answer is to review the communications management plan.  A communications management plan is a component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. Communication is the most important factor in engaging with stakeholders effectively. Project success is dependent on effective communication and the communication medium used influences the effectiveness of communication. Before deciding to send emails to all stakeholders, the project manager should have first reviewed the communications management plan to confirm that email communication is effective for all stakeholders. Typically, preferred communication methods vary from stakeholder to stakeholder, based on a multitude of factors.  The other options are incorrect because they do not preemptively address the core issue. In this case, some stakeholders had no problems with the emails. For others, email was clearly not the most effective way to communicate. The project manager could have avoided the confusion by reviewing the communications management plan and disseminating the information in the stakeholders’ preferred medium.

      Q3. A project is in the execution phase, and product testing is almost complete. A team member proposes that the testing can be fast-tracked by removing some of the tests. The team member believes this will help to finish the job earlier and give the project more float. What should the project manager do?

      A. Request more information from the team member.

      B. Reject the team member’s proposal.

      C. Discuss this proposal with the project team.

      D. Ask the quality manager to consider the proposal.

      (Answer: B)

      Reason : Removing certain tests is a risky move, and can’t be done just to fast-track the project. The Project Manager should have considered all tests while assigning time for the testing phase. If the project is progressing as per the assigned time, no review of tests is needed, and the proposal should be rejected.

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